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Full Version: Timing of sales according to IFRS
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Hi all

i am asking you about IFRS principle.
Goods are produced in China and sent to Japan directly. We have 5 companies in China.
However we also have company in HK whose role in financing holding company.
As far as i know, timing of sales is the point when they receive goods, in this case, Japan in case good sent directly Japan. However, possible we take FOB that means HK.

Anyone please help me out

Thank you
Revenue arising from the sale of goods should be recognised when all of the following criteria have been satisfied
=> The seller has transferred to the buyer the significant risks and rewards of ownership
=> The seller retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the degree usually associated with ownership nor effective control over the goods sold
You have not given more details, like penalty, custody etc
Thank you Dard
You mean this case is in Japan, don't you.
What do you mean "This case is in japan"?