Accountancy Forum

I am hoping that you accountants here will know the answer!!

My wife has been working for a retailer for two years and has been bullied and racially abused by the store manager. She is now off work, suffering with depression. She has instructed a solicitor to represent her in seeking to take the company to an industrial tribunal.

The company has now called in an administrator and is looking for a buyer. The administrator says, "We want to proceed immediately to a sale Business Agreement with the successful bidder. For clarity, this will be an asset only sale through an insolvency process."

I don't understand what this means? If a new buyer for the company is found, will my wife still be able to pursue her claim, or has she lost out altogether with new owners in place?

Any help would be appreciated. Thanks to all.

Steve

Dear

Your wife claim is against company and not the owner of company therefore you wife can still sue company even if orginal owner sell company. But your are saying that company is being insolvant means they are closing down compay as company is bankcrupt. They selling company asset and winding up company.

Is your wife member of any Union?.

Your question is more legal you need legal advise from lawyer.

Khalid