04-27-2006, 03:48 AM
Per IFRS 5 such an asset should be classified under the said standard (since there is an intention to sell within a yearâs time and meets other requirements). Presuming that there is no legal agreement to lease back (at the balance sheet date), I think a disclosure to that fact would suffice.
I understand you are towing the line of âsubstance over formâ, what is your opinion on this ?
I understand you are towing the line of âsubstance over formâ, what is your opinion on this ?