02-20-2010, 10:16 AM
Ahmed I do have an idea that what you intended to ask on this thread and your last post confirms it further. I appreciated your query and also liked to know the reason. The explanation provided by Mr. Kamran for not capitalizing finance charges in case of finance lease due to impairment implications partially gives the answer.
The first part of your post is quite disturbing. Mr. Kamran has quite a good understanding of IFRSs, though he may not be always right. More courtesy is expected from someone like you during communication.
The first part of your post is quite disturbing. Mr. Kamran has quite a good understanding of IFRSs, though he may not be always right. More courtesy is expected from someone like you during communication.